Re: How to get an IPv4 host to connect to an IPv6 listening socket
- From: gordonb.s3sia@xxxxxxxxxxx (Gordon Burditt)
- Date: Tue, 11 Dec 2007 03:17:09 -0000
As far as I know, you can't get a IPv4-only host to connect to
an IPv6 socket unless you've got something like a default route
that goes through a translator.
Can this be done? I seem to recall something about embedding IPv4
addresses in the final two "sets" of an IPv6 address. Is this what
I'm looking for? I guess, back to the original question, is it
There is a mapping from the IPv4 addresses xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx to
0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:ffff:XXXX:XXXX . This means, with a
suitable gateway, an IPv6 host could reach out and connect to an
IPv4 host.
possible for an IPv4 host to make a connection to an IPv6 listening
socket?
In general, NO, there's not nearly enough bits in the address to specify
an IPv6 host.
I've done both IPv4 and IPv6 work, but never had to mix the two. From.
what I know of IPv6 and IPv4, my first guess is that, no, it's not
possible. IPv6 is entirely different, but then there's that RFC I
recall seeing many years about placing IPv4 hosts into IPv6
addresses. I don't recall the RFC number or I'd start by looking that
up.
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